CCSK Exam Questions Dumps, Selling Cloud Security Alliance Products
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NEW QUESTION # 60
Inability of customer to leave, migrate, Or transfer to an alternate cloud service provider because of technical or nontechnical constraints. is known as:
- A. Vendor lock-out
- B. Vendor Limit
- C. Vendor Lock
- D. Vendor lock-in
Answer: D
Explanation:
Vendor lock-in is a situation in which a customer using a product or service cannot easily transition to a competitor's product or service. Vendor lock-in is usually the result of proprietary technologies that are incompatible with those of competitors.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) might be limited or require pre-testing permission from the provider.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?
- A. Increases manual control over security settings
- B. Reduces the need for security auditing
- C. Increases scalability of cloud resources
- D. Enables consistent security configurations through automation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Infrastructure as Code (IaC) helps maintain consistency in security configurations through automation, reducing the likelihood of misconfigurations. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 7 - Infrastructure & Networking]
NEW QUESTION # 63
In cloud services. risks and responsibilities are shared between the cloud provider and customer.
however. which of the following holds true?
- A. Cloud provider has ultimate legal liability for unauthorised and illicit data disclosures
- B. Cloud Provider liability is limited to financial responsibility
- C. Cloud Customer has ultimate legal liability for unauthorised and illicit data disclosures
- D. Cloud Customer liability is limited to financial responsibility
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a shared responsibility model. Data security is responsibility of the cloud consumer and he is legally liable.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Where does the encryption engine and key reside when doing file-level encryption?
- A. Encryption engine resides on the server and keys on the client side
- B. On the client side
- C. On the KMS attached to the system
- D. On the instance attached to the system
Answer: D
Explanation:
File-level encryption: Database servers typically reside on volume storage. For this deployment, you are encrypting the volume or folder of the database, with the encryption engine and keys residing on the instances attached to the volume.
External file system encryption protects from media theft, lost backups, and external attack but does not protect against attacks with access to the application layer, the instances 0S, or the data
NEW QUESTION # 65
A framework of containers for all components of application security. best practices. catalogued and leveraged by the ORGANIZATION is called:
- A. ONF
- B. ANF
- C. DAF
- D. CAF
Answer: A
Explanation:
Please notice that the question is asked for the organisation and therefore, ONF is the correct answer. If the similar question is asked for a particular application then answer would ANF
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following phases of data security lifecycle typically occurs nearly simultaneously with creation?
- A. Save
- B. Use
- C. Store
- D. Encrypt
Answer: C
Explanation:
Storing is the act committing the digital data to some sort of storage repository and typically occurs nearly simultaneously with creation.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 67
Code execution environments that run within an operating system. sharing and leveraging resources of that operating system. are known as:
- A. Containers
- B. Nodes
- C. VMs
- D. Host
Answer: A
Explanation:
Containers are code execution environments that run within an operating system(for now), sharing and leveraging resources of that operating system. While a VM is a full abstraction of an operating system, a container is a constrained place to run segregated processes while still utilizing the kernel and other capabilities of the base 0S.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0
NEW QUESTION # 68
What type of logs record interactions with specific services in a system?
- A. (Service and Application Logs
- B. Security Logs
- C. Debug Logs
- D. Network Logs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Service and Application Logs record interactions with specific services within a system. These logs track how users and systems interact with various applications and services, such as API calls, service requests, and responses. They are essential for monitoring service performance, troubleshooting issues, and auditing service usage.
Security Logs primarily focus on security-related events, such as unauthorized access attempts or security breaches. Network Logs capture network traffic data and information about the movement of data across a network. Debug Logs are typically used for debugging purposes and may include detailed technical information, but they do not specifically track service interactions like service and application logs do.
NEW QUESTION # 69
ISO 27001 certification can be taken as proof to achieve Third-party assessment level in CSA star program.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CSA STAR Certification is a rigorous third-party independent assessment of the security of a cloud service provider. The technology-neutral certification leverages the requirements of the ISO/IEC
27001:2013 management system standard together with the CSA Cloud Controls Matrix.
NEW QUESTION # 70
An inherent weakness in an information system. security procedures. internal controls, or implementation that could be exploited by a threat source.
- A. Vulnerbility
- B. Threat
- C. Risk
- D. ARO
Answer: A
Explanation:
Thats the definition of vulnerbility
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?
- A. Multiple independent deployments for applications
- B. Shared deployments for similar applications
- C. Randomized deployment configurations
- D. A single deployment for all applications
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multiple independent deployments help isolate workloads, reducing the potential impact of a breach by confining it to a single deployment environment. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 7 - Infrastructure
& Networking]
NEW QUESTION # 72
APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 73
In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?
- A. Cloud Provider
- B. Application Consumer
- C. Web Application CISO
- D. Database Manager
- E. Application Developer
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 74
What is the primary function of a Load Balancer Service in a Software Defined Network (SDN) environment?
- A. To encrypt data for secure transmission
- B. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations
- C. To create isolated virtual networks
- D. To monitor network performance and activity
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations.
A Load Balancer Service in an SDN environment is responsible for efficiently distributing network traffic across multiple servers or instances. This ensures high availability, reliability, and optimized resource usage.
Key Functions:
* Traffic Distribution: Balances incoming requests to various servers based on predefined algorithms (round-robin, least connections, etc.).
* High Availability: Prevents server overload and reduces downtime by distributing workload.
* Scalability: Automatically adjusts as the number of requests or available resources changes.
* Health Monitoring: Continually checks server availability and responsiveness to avoid directing traffic to non-responsive instances.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A. Isolated virtual networks: Creating isolated networks is a function of network virtualization, not load balancing.
* B. Monitor network performance: Monitoring is done by network monitoring tools, not load balancers.
* D. Encrypt data for secure transmission: Encryption is handled by security protocols like TLS/SSL, not load balancers.
Real-World Example:
Services like AWS Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) and Azure Load Balancer ensure that traffic is distributed efficiently across instances, maintaining performance and uptime.
References:
CSA Security Guidance v4.0, Domain 7: Infrastructure Security
Cloud Computing Security Risk Assessment (ENISA) - SDN and Load Balancing Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v3.0.1 - Network and Infrastructure Domains
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?
- A. Scalability and redundancy
- B. Cost efficiency and speed to market
- C. Improved software development methodologies
- D. Enhanced security and compliance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud computing is adopted mainly for its cost-effectiveness and the ability to accelerate time-to-market, enhancing business agility. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 1 - Cloud Benefits]
NEW QUESTION # 76
In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?
- A. Implementing real-time visibility
- B. Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline
- C. Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning
- D. Full packet network monitoring
Answer: A
Explanation:
Real-time visibility allows for monitoring container behavior during runtime, helping to identify and respond to security incidents as they occur. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 8 - Cloud Workload Security]
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which is the most common control used for Risk Transfer?
- A. Contracts
- B. SLA
- C. Insurance
- D. Web Application Firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
Buying insurance is most common method of transferring risk.
NEW QUESTION # 78
CCM: A company wants to use the IaaS offering of some CSP. Which of the following options for using CCM is NOT suitable for the company as a cloud customer?
- A. Use CCM to help assess the risk associated with the CSP
- B. Submit the CCM on behalf of the CSP to CSA Security, Trust & Assurance Registry (STAR), a free, publicly accessible registry that documents the security controls provided by CSPs
- C. Use CCM to build a detailed list of requirements and controls that they want their CSP to implement
- D. None of the above
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 79
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The CCSK exam is designed to test the knowledge and skills of professionals in the field of cloud computing. CCSK exam covers a wide range of topics, including cloud architecture, governance and risk management, data security and privacy, compliance and audit management, and incident response. CCSK exam is designed to help professionals develop a comprehensive understanding of the various aspects of cloud security and the best practices for securing cloud environments.
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