Free Sample Questions to Practice 220-1202 Certification Test Engine [Dec-2025]
2025 Valid 220-1202 Real Exam Questions, practice A+
NEW QUESTION # 27
Various alerts on a user's Windows 11 laptop are continually interrupting videoconference calls. Which of the following should a support technician recommend to best solve the issue?
- A. Configure the Sounds option in Control Panel to be set to No Sounds
- B. Use multiple sound output devices for the various source applications
- C. Disable all notifications in different applications in the order they appear
- D. Set Windows Notifications settings to Do Not Disturb
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
TheDo Not Disturbsetting in Windows Notification settings allows users to suppress all notification banners and sounds during presentations or video calls.
FromTravis Everett - All-in-One Exam Guide:
"Use Windows 'Do Not Disturb' to prevent notifications from interrupting full-screen apps like video conferencing."
NEW QUESTION # 28
A secretary receives an email from the company's chief executive officer with a request to pay a vendor immediately. After the payment is made, the CEO informs the secretary that they never sent that email. Which of the following social engineering tactics best describes this type of attack?
- A. Spear phishing
- B. Evil twin
- C. Impersonation
- D. Whaling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Whalingis a form of phishing that targets high-profile individuals or involves pretending to be them (e.g., CEOs) to trick lower-level employees into transferring funds or sensitive data.
FromQuentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Study Guide:
"Whaling is a phishing tactic targeting executives or masquerading as one. The attacker crafts emails that exploit authority and urgency to manipulate recipients."
NEW QUESTION # 29
A user decides to switch to Windows from Linux and is trying to migrate data using an external USB hard disk. However, when the user connects the cable to the Windows machine, an error message appears stating the device must be formatted before it can be used. The hard disk works as expected when connected to the Linux machine. Which of the following should the user do to resolve this issue?
- A. Update the file allocation system to exFAT
- B. Configure Windows firewall to allow data from Linux systems
- C. Apply a firmware update from the PC manufacturer
- D. Replace the cable with Windows-supported hardware
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The Linux machine likely formatted the drive in a file system like ext4, which Windows cannot natively read.
Reformatting the drive toexFATallows cross-platform compatibility.
FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:
"When migrating data between OSes, using a file system like exFAT ensures compatibility. Windows cannot read Linux-native file systems such as ext4 without third-party tools."
NEW QUESTION # 30
A help desk technician needs to remove RAM from retired workstations and upgrade other workstations that have applications that use more memory with this RAM. Which of the following actions would the technician most likely take?
- A. Demagnetize memory for security.
- B. Use antistatic bags for storage and transport.
- C. Plug in the power supply to ground each workstation.
- D. Install memory in identical pairs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
RAM is an electrostatic-sensitive component. When removing or transporting RAM modules, they should be stored in antistatic bags to protect against electrostatic discharge (ESD), which can damage the memory. This is a standard best practice in hardware handling.
A: Demagnetization is not applicable to RAM.
C: Plugging in power to ground is not safe or recommended for static protection.
D: Installing identical memory pairs is applicable for dual-channel configuration, but not directly related to transporting or handling RAM.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.3: Explain environmental impacts and procedures.
Study Guide Section: ESD safety practices and component handling procedures
NEW QUESTION # 31
A technician needs to install an operating system on a large number of workstations. Which of the following is the fastest method?
- A. Mountable ISO
- B. Image deployment
- C. Manual installation
- D. Physical media
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Image deployment is the fastest and most efficient method for installing operating systems on multiple machines. It involves creating a pre-configured image of an OS and deploying it across systems using tools like Windows Deployment Services (WDS) or third-party imaging solutions. This method saves time and ensures consistency across all devices.
A: Physical media is slow and not scalable.
B: Mountable ISOs are useful but still require manual installation.
C: Manual installation is time-consuming and not suitable for large-scale deployment.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate Microsoft operating system installation methods.
Study Guide Section: Deployment methods - image deployment, automation
NEW QUESTION # 32
An employee is using a photo editing program. Certain features are disabled and require a log-in, which the employee does not have. Which of the following is a way to resolve this issue?
- A. Application repair
- B. License assignment
- C. VPN connection
- D. Program reinstallation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Many modern commercial software applications (including photo editors like Adobe Photoshop) offer tiered features based on user subscriptions or license levels. If certain features are locked and prompt for a login, the issue is likely due to a missing or unassigned software license. Assigning the correct license through a centralized license management system (such as Adobe Admin Console or Microsoft 365 portal) will enable those features.
B: VPN connection does not affect local software licensing.
C: Repairing the application does not resolve license entitlement.
D: Reinstalling the software won't help unless the license is assigned.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common software and application issues.
Study Guide Section: Troubleshooting licensing and access control for applications
NEW QUESTION # 33
A company executive is currently attending a major music festival with a large number of attendees and is having trouble accessing a work email account. The email application is not downloading emails and also appears to become stuck during connection attempts. Which of the following is most likely causing the disruption?
- A. Too many devices in the same area are trying to connect to the mobile network.
- B. The phone has no storage space available.
- C. The festival organizer prohibits internet usage during the event and has blocked the internet signal
- D. Company firewalls are configured to block remote access to email resources.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
At large events such as music festivals, cellular towers may become congested due to the high volume of users attempting to connect simultaneously. This congestion causes slow or failed data connections, which explains the email application being unable to sync or connect. This is a common real-world mobile connectivity issue in crowded areas.
A: Lack of storage would prevent saving attachments, not prevent connection attempts.
B: Company firewalls usually don't affect mobile access unless specific device restrictions are enforced.
D: Organizers do not have the ability to block the internet signal; only carriers manage mobile bandwidth.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot mobile OS and connectivity issues.
Study Guide Section: Mobile network limitations - signal congestion and bandwidth issues
NEW QUESTION # 34
A customer's laptop will not turn on. The customer is distraught and panicking because the laptop contains family pictures that can never be replaced. Which of the following communication techniques is most important for the technician to demonstrate in this situation?
- A. The technician should project confidence and maintain a positive attitude
- B. The technician should inform the customer about replacement options for an increased cost
- C. The technician should provide the customer with the appropriate SLA
- D. The technician should be dressed in appropriate business casual attire
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
In emotionally sensitive situations, it is critical that the technicianprojects confidenceand maintains a calm, positive demeanor to reassure the customer.
FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:
"Confidence and empathy are key when working with distressed users. Demonstrating competence can help ease the customer's anxiety."
NEW QUESTION # 35
After completing malware removal steps, what is the next step the technician should take?
- A. Perform a secondary antivirus scan
- B. Educate the end user
- C. Reimage the computer
- D. Review system logs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
End-user education is crucial after malware removal to prevent recurrence. Teaching safe browsing habits and security awareness completes the remediation cycle.
Mark Soper - Mike Meyers' Lab Manualstates:
"Educating the user after malware remediation is part of the CompTIA malware response methodology. This includes training on phishing and safe practices."
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following filesystems supports read and write operations for Windows, macOS, and Linux?
- A. NTFS
- B. ReFS
- C. APFS
- D. ext4
- E. exFAT
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
exFATis the only listed file system that supports both read and write access across Windows, macOS, and Linux (with appropriate drivers). It's optimized for flash storage and external drives.
FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:
"exFAT is a lightweight file system with cross-platform read/write support, ideal for use on removable drives when compatibility is essential."
NEW QUESTION # 37
A support specialist needs to decide whether to install a 32-bit or 64-bit OS architecture on a new computer.
Which of the following specifications will help the specialist determine which OS architecture to use?
- A. 16GB RAM
- B. Intel i7 CPU
- C. 1Gbps Ethernet
- D. 500GB HDD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The amount of installed RAM is the key factor in determining whether a 64-bit OS is needed. A 32-bit operating system cannot effectively address more than 4GB of RAM. Since this system has 16GB of RAM, a
64-bit OS is required to utilize the full memory.
B: An Intel i7 CPU supports both 32-bit and 64-bit OS installations, so it alone doesn't determine the need.
C: HDD size does not influence OS architecture selection.
D: Ethernet speed is a network consideration and not related to OS architecture.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, choose the appropriate Microsoft OS installation methods and configurations.
Study Guide Section: 32-bit vs. 64-bit system requirements and memory limitations
NEW QUESTION # 38
Users are reporting that an unsecured network is broadcasting with the same name as the normal wireless network. They are able to access the internet but cannot connect to the file share servers. Which of the following best describes this issue?
- A. Rogue wireless access point
- B. Unreachable DNS server
- C. Incorrect IP address
- D. Virtual local area network misconfiguration
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
This scenario describes a rogue access point - a malicious or unauthorized wireless access point that uses the same SSID as the legitimate network. Users may connect to it unknowingly, which can result in limited network access, data interception, or redirection of traffic. The inability to reach internal file servers supports this being an unauthorized AP with no connection to internal resources.
A: A DNS issue would impact name resolution, not connectivity to file servers directly.
B: VLAN issues generally affect segmentation, not mimic SSID problems.
C: An incorrect IP address could cause connectivity issues, but not in the presence of a malicious AP broadcasting the same SSID.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast wireless and physical security threats.
Study Guide Section: Rogue access points and their detection
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following file types would a desktop support technician most likely use to automate tasks for a Windows user log-in?
- A. .py
- B. .js
- C. .sh
- D. .bat
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A: .bat file (batch file) is a script file in DOS, OS/2, and Microsoft Windows. It contains a series of commands that are executed by the command-line interpreter. In Windows environments, batch files are commonly used to automate log-in tasks, such as mapping network drives, launching applications, or setting environment variables during the user's logon process.
B: .sh is a shell script used in Linux/Unix environments.
C: .py is a Python script, which can be used for automation but is not commonly run directly at user logon in standard Windows environments.
D: .js is JavaScript, used mainly in web development and not for system-level scripting in Windows logon automation.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.3: Use appropriate Microsoft operating system features and tools.
Study Guide Section: Scripting basics and file types for automation - .bat for Windows
NEW QUESTION # 40
An application's performance is degrading over time. The application is slowing, but it never gives an error and does not crash. Which of the following tools should a technician use to start troubleshooting?
- A. Reliability history
- B. Computer management
- C. Disk
- D. Resource monitor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Resource Monitor provides real-time monitoring of system performance and resource usage, including CPU, memory, disk, and network usage. It helps technicians identify performance bottlenecks (e.g., high memory or CPU usage) that can cause slowdowns in applications over time without producing crash errors.
A: Reliability history logs application crashes or errors - not helpful if the app doesn't crash.
B: Computer Management is a broad utility with limited real-time monitoring capability.
D: Disk is too vague - tools like CHKDSK can help with disk errors but not general performance degradation.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common personal computer issues.
Study Guide Section: System performance tools - Resource Monitor, Task Manager
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following is an example of an application publisher including undisclosed additional software in an installation package?
- A. Ransomware
- B. Potentially unwanted program
- C. Virus
- D. Trojan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A Potentially Unwanted Program (PUP) is software that a user may not have knowingly installed. It often gets bundled with legitimate software and installs without full disclosure. PUPs can affect performance, change system settings, or display unwanted ads but are not necessarily malicious like viruses or ransomware.
A: Viruses replicate and spread; they are generally more harmful and not "bundled" in the same way.
B: Ransomware encrypts files for payment and is deliberately malicious.
D: A Trojan disguises itself as legitimate software to perform malicious actions but is not typically pre- bundled by legitimate publishers.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.5: Given a scenario, detect, remove, and prevent malware using appropriate tools and methods.
Study Guide Section: Types of malware - PUPs and bundled software
NEW QUESTION # 42
After using a third-party disk optimization software package, a technician restarts a laptop and receives the message "No operating system found." The technician verifies that the BIOS properly recognizes the SSD.
Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A. Boot from installation media and repair the MBR
- B. Update BitLocker settings in the BIOS
- C. Replace the CMOS battery
- D. Isolate the system from the corporate network
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A corruptedMaster Boot Record (MBR)is a common issue after disk manipulation. Booting from installation media and using tools like bootrec to repair the MBR can resolve the problem.
Travis Everett - All-in-One Exam Guideexplains:
"A damaged MBR may result in the OS not loading. Booting from recovery or installation media and selecting startup repair or running bootrec commands can restore functionality."
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following prevents forced entry into a building?
- A. Motion-activated lighting
- B. Bollard
- C. PIV card
- D. Video surveillance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A bollard is a sturdy physical barrier-often a steel or concrete post-designed to prevent vehicles or unauthorized individuals from ramming into or entering secure areas of a building. It provides physical security and is commonly used outside entrances to prevent forced entry.
A: PIV (Personal Identity Verification) cards are used for identity access control, not physical blocking.
B: Motion lighting may deter activity but doesn't physically prevent entry.
C: Surveillance records activity but cannot stop a forced entry.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast physical security measures.
Study Guide Section: Physical security devices - barriers, bollards, and deterrents
NEW QUESTION # 44
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